I’m covered in kids so it’s hard to check, but does this not follow more quickly from Cauchy-Schwarz applied to the second given inequality?
Edit: No, we only get a weaker result.
Nice. BTW, it looks like your method could be generalized to bound avg(f^2) whenever we know avg(f) and avg(xf).
I’m covered in kids so it’s hard to check, but does this not follow more quickly from Cauchy-Schwarz applied to the second given inequality?
Edit: No, we only get a weaker result.
Nice. BTW, it looks like your method could be generalized to bound avg(f^2) whenever we know avg(f) and avg(xf).